Today, I got stuck at a formula: \( (AA'+BB')(AA'+BB')^+A=A \) , where \( A \) and \( B \) are arbitrary \( m \times n \) matrices such that \( \mathrm{Col}(A) \cap \mathrm{Col}(B)=\{0\} \). After quite some time of brainstorming, I convinced myself.
The keypoint is to prove that \( \mathrm{Col}(A) \subseteq \mathrm{Col}(AA'+BB') \).
First lets prove that \(A\) and \(AA'\) span the same vector space.
By SVD, we have
\( A=UDV' \), \( U^TU=I_m \), \( V^TV=I_n \)
And
\( AA'=UD^2U' \)
Note that \(D\) and \(D^2\) have nonzero elements at identical positions. And \(U\) and \(V'\) are of full rank, therefore \( Vx , Uy \) can be arbitrary vectors, and thus \( \mathrm{Col}(DV') = \mathrm{Col}(D^2U') \). Therefore, \( \mathrm{Col}(UDV') = \mathrm{Col}(UD^2U') \), which is exactly \( \mathrm{Col}(A) = \mathrm{Col}(AA') \).
Next, note \(A\) and \(B\) are essentially disjoint, thus by what is just proved, so are \(AA'\) and \(BB'\).
Now write \( BB'=PE^2P' \). Because both \( U \) and \( P \) have full rank, there exists \( P=UV \).
\( BB' = UVE^2V'U' \)
Comparing
\( AA'=UD^2U' \) and \( BB' = UVE^2V'U' \).
It is easily observed that
\( \mathrm{Col}(AA') \cap \mathrm{Col}(BB') = \{0\} \iff \mathrm{Col}(D^2) \cap \mathrm{Col}(VE^2V') = \{0\} \). But \( D^2 \)
is a diagonal matrix, thus \( VE^2V' \) has zero columns and rows where \( D \) has nonzero element. And hence,
\( \mathrm{Col}(D^2) \subseteq \mathrm{Col}(D^2+VE^2V') \).
And hence
\( \mathrm{Col}(UD^2U') \subseteq \mathrm{Col}(U(D^2+VE^2V')U') \)
\( \implies \mathrm{Col}(A) = \mathrm{Col}(AA') \subseteq \mathrm{Col}(AA'+BB') \).
The last step left is to recognized that all columns of \( A \) are in column space of \(A\), thus are in \( \mathrm{Col}(AA'+BB') \). Thus by a theorem saying that any matrix equation \( Cx=b \) is consistent if and only if \( CC^+b=b \). The proposition is proved.